While the probability of any individual defeating the market is 0.5 in any given year, the probability of someone from the pool of N investors getting beating the market 39/47 years is N * 0.5 ^ 47. (It's been a while since I've done probability, so correct me if I'm wrong.)
> the probability of someone from the pool of N investors getting beating the market 39/47 years is N * 0.5 ^ 47.
No, that's wrong. If the original performance had been an unbroken sequence of successful years, say, 39, it would be possible to apply the binomial theorem to it, but the binomial theorem would need to be applied both to the original probability and to the calculation of how many investors would be needed to create a better-than-even prospect of that outcome.
But the 39 successful years were randomly distributed among years where the performance wasn't better than market indices, which makes the probability much higher for it being explainable by chance -- how much higher depends on the actual pattern, which I wasn't able to find.
