>so if you're just taking a few quick sips (as most taste tests are set up), you may prefer the sweeter taste of Pepsi because it stands out more, but if you're drinking a whole bunch, the sweeter taste of Pepsi can feel cloying.
This is not about drinking or sipping though. This is about people prefer Pepsi in blind tests and Coke in unblinded tests.
So this explanation would only make sense if the blind tests are also using sipping and the unblinded tests are using drinking.
The parent comment says that sipping gives a different experience to drinking which would explain preference for Coke vs Pepsi in blind vs unblinded testing.
I argue that this doesn't make sense as an explanation, as blind vs unblinded testing is orthogonal to sipping vs drinking.
So, if this is the explanation, they'd have to set the testsa very particular way, for seemingly no reason (expept, perhaps, such manipulation of results).
This is not about drinking or sipping though. This is about people prefer Pepsi in blind tests and Coke in unblinded tests.
So this explanation would only make sense if the blind tests are also using sipping and the unblinded tests are using drinking.